I don't know. I see both sides. Judge Owens makes good points for the majority, but the competing view (adopted by Judge Rawlinson in dissent) has a lot going for it as well. I am definitely not as emphatic as Judge Rawlinson on this issue. But maybe his side has the better of the argument?
Back in 1934, a Nevada state court action determined who could take what water from the Baker-Lehman Creeks. An important issue, to be sure. But the federal government, which owned plenty of the underlying land, didn't participate in the lawsuit. For good reason. It was entitled to sovereign immunity, so no way it was going to bind itself to a state court action. So the state court gave respective water rights to everyone, but not to the federal government.
Fast forward. In 1952, Congress didn't like how this whole thing was ending up. In Nevada as elsewhere. It wanted the federal government to start showing up to these things. So Congress passed the McCarran Amendment, which waived sovereign immunity in these types of cases. And the Act was retroactive as well, and bound the federal government to prior "comprehensive" adjudications of water rights.
Makes sense. Judge Owens cogently explains how all this went down, and why. I learned a lot; thanks for that, honestly.
So is the federal government now bound to the prior 1934 Nevada state court adjudication of the Baker-Lehman Creeks water rights? Judge Owens says "yes" because that proceeding was "comprehensive" (as the McCarran Amendment requires) in that it adjudicated everyone's rights to the water, whereas Judge Rawlinson says "no" because the federal government (understandably) didn't participate and hence (understandably) wasn't awarded at the time any water rights.
I'm slightly leaning to Judge Rawlinson's perspective, I think. It just seems profoundly unfair to me, and contrary to congressional intent, to say that the federal government is bound to a finding in which it (1) did not (for good reason) participate at the time, and (2) accordingly wasn't awarded any water rights, even though it owned tons of the underlying land at issue and certainly would have been awarded water rights had it elected to participate. (Which, again, it made sense not to at the time.) Why would that make sense? Why is that fair or equitable? Why should the other landowners get all the water and the federal parks through which the water flows -- here, the Great Basin National Park -- left to rot in the dust?
I understand Judge Owens' argument that allowing the United States to pop in and exercise water rights at this point would "unsettle" a ton of these prior allocations. Yeah, I admit, that's a pain. But the alternative seems even worse. It would be one thing if the prior allocations reserved some water for the feds (based on their existing land ownership and use) notwithstanding their failure to actively participate. That would indeed, in my view, be a "comprehensive" adjudication, and one to which I might well bind the federal government.
But when, say, the federal government owns 99% of the land, and is using (at the time) 99% of the water, and 1% of the landowners bring a lawsuit and are awarded 100% of the water because the 99% owner (rightly) fails to participate, it makes no sense to me to say: "Oh, well, tough, that was a totally 'comprehensive' prior adjudication because it allocated all the water to all the (relevant) landowners."
No it didn't. It didn't discuss -- or even attempt to address -- the federal government's rights at all. It was not "comprehensive" in that regard. And, as a practical matter, is unfair and socially deleterious to bind everyone to a prior adjudication that we know full well doesn't accurately reflect the relevant ownership and use of the underlying land. Either now or then.
That's my concern with the majority opinion, anyway. I get the arguments. I'm just not entirely sure I'm completely persuaded.
Notwithstanding a really cogent and intelligent opinion by Judge Owens.